I think I'm mind boggled & need some advice. I have a client who transfers monies between his businesses so to counteract this & balance the bank I use 2300 (balance sheet a/c) as an intercompany loan account. Which is great in effect as it gets treated as a loan so the accountants are happy. If transferring out I credit bank and debit loan ac, now to confuse matters this money should be kept as a loan ac right ? as in effect, it has to be paid back. What if they pay a creditor? Should I transfer this back off the loan ac (as in a journal) or do a different journal, this is where I'm getting into a right pickle?
but theres 5 points to the journal, its the missing bit i just cant get my head around. The loan ac has to go thru the bank to pay the creditor, where does the other half go? Do i leave the loan ac as it is & not touch it at all?
yes because the money has gone into the bank, or are you saying that Co A is paying a supplier of Co B directly? If this is the case I would set up a new bank (if in Sage, perhaps 1220 if it isn't being used) and call it something like inter-co loan a/c. The money would need to go into the bank in order to pay off the supplier if the invoice is on the purchase ledger.
Also if you use 'inter-co loan a/c' it should always be zero once the supplier has been paid. And of course the balance on 2300 in Co A should be an equal but opposite balance of 2300 in Co B.
ive just done that journal & now have to payments to reconcile in the bank a/c so im down by that amount, in effect ive paid it twice, thnk im going mad
So, to get this right then. Im not to touch the 2300 loan a/c - this will stay the loan a/c on the balance sheet (i have debits and credits on there as he transfers money from one to the other, pays creditors from one to the other etc).
No need to touch 2300 when paying the supplier, as Co B has borrowed money from A and that loan has already been credited. The balance now shows how much B owes A. However B's bank balance has increased (or the notional interco bank a/c), and that will decrease once the supplier has been paid. the loan is still outstanding though, much like if I lend you £100 to pay your electric bill and you pay your electric bill, you will still owe me £100. Unless I am getting hold of the wrong end of the stick.
Just opened a bank a/c & put the br through to pay supplier but nominally coded it to 2300 & now ive got debit on bank & credit on loan ac so in effect it has the credit on the loan ac twice..i have to nominally code the br somewhere
Think Ive done it Rob. If I put through the BR as the same as supplier (ie) telephone 7502 & then pay it off via this new bank account under supplier account (under 7502) then it seems to be working, I was putting through BR on 2300 which in effect was increasing the liability twice, this shouldnt in effect increase the expenses on the nominal account should it? Ill soon find out, Ill run a tb tomorrow & see how it goes..Your a good un !!
Hey, I can laugh about it now, but it drove me mad all afternoon.. I was trying to hard to link in the intercompany loan a/c to the audit trail.. hey, Rob is worth his weight in gold.
Im sure not Rob. Ive done all my Intercompany transactions today, it was approx £98k going through, it took me ages, good Im a dab hand with journals isnt it? Tnx again!