Can someone please tell me if this is correct as it doesn't seem consistant or fair to me. I work for a Local Authority and recently hit lucky and got a better paid job within the same Council. I transferred to the new post on 13th March and was paid 13/365 salary for the first 13 days of March at the old rate and 18/365 monthly equivalent at the new rate. The dispute I have is that I overspent 2 days of my holiday entitlement and was not allowed to transfer them to the new job. As such, 2 days pay was deducted from my pay for March at the old rate, but based on 2/261 as there were 261 workable days. This does not seem right as my annual days are classed as 1/261 annual pay but my working days are 1/365, meaning I am being deducted more than I would have been paid.
Seems wrong to me, I would have thought both examples should have been calculated at 1 day being 1/260th of your annual salary, there being 260 working days in a year (or 52 X 5)
Could it be that the holiday was manually deducted ie someone worked it out not realising they had to include the weekends. As your still working for them, I would fight for it!
I used to work in the payroll dept for a county council and this defintely sounds wrong to me. When we had a leaver, the oustanding holiday pay was always calculated effectively as an adjustment to the leave date. For example if you had 2 days owing to you after 13th March, we would have paid you to 15th March, an extra 2/365. (Well in fact we did it as 2/31 of a months pay)
It should state the correct method in your Terms & Conditions of Service, so ask to see a copy. Speak to HR too
Thanks to all of you for the replies. I have got onto HR about this and they state it is correct. I have got onto my union too and they are going to contact my employer about it as they think it is incorrect too.
