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Post Info TOPIC: Really stupid question about hair salon business


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Really stupid question about hair salon business
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Hi, I have a really stupid question.

 

I have a new client who runs a hair salon, she has self-employed stylists who pay chair rent and she takes a percentage of their sales.

 

Now for the stupid question......when she pays the stylists is this a cost of sale?

 

Thanks in advance

Rachel



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Rachel



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if the stylists are paying her rent for the chair and she is also taking a percentage of their sales. then the rent would be other income so you could set up a new code for that and call it chair rent received .  I think the  percentage could also be other income . or just add it to the sales .

I don't see  what it is she is paying the stylists 

 

 

 



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Hi Nautica, thank you

As they don't take the money themselves when a client pays - it goes straight into her till or bank. So she reimburses them the money less a percentage that she takes. 

But my question is - is the cost of the self-employed stylists a cost of sale?

Thanks
Rachel



-- Edited by rachel_mclean on Tuesday 8th of July 2014 09:32:53 PM

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Rachel



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Hi Rachel

I would separate the receipts from the self employed stylists out, as they should not be part of your clients turnover.

The only part of the transactions you client gets, is an income from the chair rental.

The way I see this scenario, is that the stylist, is a creditor, and a debtor of your client being owed the full value of the receipt but also owing some rent, which makes it slightly complicated

It gets a bit messy but using VT I would probably set up a supplier account (Stylist? but you may want to have one for each stylist), and another income account (Chair rental?)

Instead of posting the relevant receipts to an income account, post it to the supplier account. So I would DR Bank  a/c (Till?, or whichever account you currently post the receipts to) and  CR Supplier > Stylists a/c (not to sales). In VT go to the supplier account and using the black PAY button at the bottom pay in to the appropriate bank(Till?) a/c

When the money is paid to the stylist, I would journal DR Supplier > Stylist a/c the full amount and CR Income>Chair rental the value of the cut, and CR Bank (Till?) the balance. This will clear the debt to the stylist, and leave the income in the bank from the rental income.

It isn't as bad as it sounds, and with VT you could set up a custom transaction to make the receipt side of it easier. There will be other ways of doing it but I cannot see anything simpler.

If your client is VAT registered, it gets even more complex, as the chair rental will be subject to VAT as well

HTH

Bill

Edited to add the comment about VAT



-- Edited by Wella on Wednesday 9th of July 2014 12:32:34 PM

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Hi,

I would treat it as a cost of sale. The commission paid to the self employed stylists is a direct cost of production.

In a retail sales context, goods purchased from an external wholesaler for re-sale would be treated as cost of sales.

David.



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Hi David

What I understood Rachel to be saying, is that her client (the salon owner?) is only accepting the payment on behalf of the stylists. The stylist is making a direct supply to the customer.

She is not paying them a commission, she is paying them the full amount but retaining her chair rental fee.

I would agree with you if the salon owner was making the charge to the customer but in this instance I don't think they are subcontractors.

Bill



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Hi Bill,

On reflection, I agree with you.

To add to the debate, there is guidance from HMRC which may clarify (or not) how to approach this.

Link here:  http://www.hmrc.gov.uk/manuals/vtaxpermanual/vtaxper68900.htm

and here:  http://www.hmrc.gov.uk/manuals/vtaxpermanual/VTAXPER69100.htm

David.



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