I was wondering if anybody can confirm whether my understanding is correct on how to account for per diem allowances paid to employees for expenses incurred while they were temporarily working overseas.
Reference the above link, taking Afghanistan as an example is my understanding correct that staff can claim 4.00 per day without providing a receipt. However if we choose to pay more than this or exceed the thresholds for accommodation, dinner, lunch etc then the excess is deemed as a benefit which must be processed via PAYE.
More critically if employees do not exceed the maximum thresholds for any of the residuals are receipts still required?
So hows about an intro before we start. We always ask newbies!
Usual stuff - what prof body do you belong to, do you work for yourself or in a practice/ firm, are you a bookkeeper or accountant, what qualifications, how long in role, where up to in your studies-what exams passed/with what body/in midst of doing, where based, what you did before this role? That sort of thing. Helps get to know you but also how best to pitch answers.
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Joanne
Winner of Bookkeeper of the Year 2015, 2016 & 2017
Thoughts are my own/not to be regarded as official advice,which should be sought from a suitably qualified Accountant.
You should check out answers with reference to the legal position
