I have just started with a new client who has 1 VAT registered business and 1 that isn't. It seems that when an invoice has a high VAT value they will often ask a supplier to re-issue the invoice to the VAT registered company, even where it has nothing to do with that company. They then pay from the non-registered company and record the transaction as a loan to the registered company.
Obviously this is poor practise for a myriad of reasons - clearly it skews the P&L and in the case of the non-registered company may lead to overstating profits and paying more corp tax.
I don't do the books for the VAT registered company so I don't know how this hits their accounts.
My key question is... is this legal? I get that in theory it seems like a clever work-around but to me is seems a bit tax evasion-ey and I want to put draw my clients attention to this asap if required.
I have one like this years ago and as soon as I found out I ditched him and ran! It can lead to all sorts of problems/investigations etc and clearly shouldn't be operating like that. Then report him to HMRC.