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Post Info TOPIC: Prepayment??


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Prepayment??
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Hi All,

I have to invoice our parent company on a quarterly basis for our marketing costs. 

To make sure that our management accounts are consistent every month, I have put a prepayment journal through for £11k per month (Sage : Dr 1103 / Cr 6201) 

When I actually raise the invoice, I assume that I would then reverse £33k from the above nominals and post the actual invoice total to nominal 6202.

Could someone tell me if this is correct?  I do prepayments for things like insurance, but wasn't sure if this was the correct procedure for when you know you are going to raise invoices on a quartly basis??

Many Thanks



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gbm


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Think so, this has the same effect as if you're invoicing them on a monthly basis (i.e. monthly cost reduces by £11k).

If you didn't put the prepayment through, the P&L figure for the 3rd month would look odd.

However, if you're being picky, rather than a prepayment it's more of a debtor.

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What you have is not a prepayment, but an accrual.

Prepayments (1103) are used where you have paid something in advance and will show as an asset on the b/sheet. An accrual (2109) is where you want to account for something in a period P&L, but haven't paid it yet and will show as a liability on the b/sheet.

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But its not aliability - its a debtor, so would be a current asset (??)



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Guru

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yellowmadlab wrote:

But its not aliability - its a debtor, so would be a current asset (??)


Correct.

I'd follow Nicks advice and post it to an inter-company loan/debtor account rather than pre-payments.



-- Edited by ADAS on Friday 30th of September 2011 05:23:47 PM

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Tony

Responses are intended as outline only. Formal advice should be sort from your Institutes Technical Department or a suitably qualified Accountant.
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