If a company bills it's clients for the services they provided them - how should they account for any uniform costs they have incurred which were required for them to complete the job?
I think no-one answered your question because I think as your question does not make sense. Of course like anything I may be wrong and just misunderstood.
If you are creating the invoice then its up to the company to decide who it charges its services, and how its agreed with its clients in advance how it charges for its services.
in this instance I concur that I really didn't understand the question so left it.
Normally I come back to those that have had zero replies but like yourself I've been a little busy recently and a few have dropped through the cracks.
Appologies NA_AA. You weren't being ignored but sometimes where answers are not immediately apparent posts do get missed. If that happens again try rephrasing the post to bump it back up to the top.
Kind regards,
Shaun.
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Shaun
Responses are not meant as a substitute for professional advice. Answers are intended as outline only the advice of a qualified professional with access to all relevant information should be sought before acting on any response given.
I assume you are talking about job costing. If the uniform is for this specific job then it would be entered as a direct expense, if not it is an overhead which will be absorbed in line with your predefined overhead absorption rate.
I thought that it was more of a tax related question but as touched upon above it the question needs to be rewritten the clarify what the poster is looking for.
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Shaun
Responses are not meant as a substitute for professional advice. Answers are intended as outline only the advice of a qualified professional with access to all relevant information should be sought before acting on any response given.
I guess it depends on if the uniforms are going to be used again. My temptation is to say include it as a direct expense, especially if it is a one of cost relating to a specific job.