One of my clients, despite instructions to check with me first, has paid his sole employee without taking into account a DEA. Normally the employee is under the threshold, but this month he has paid her a backdated pay rise which takes her over. We're only talking £15 deduction but how best to do it? He's asked can we deduct it next month but my gut feeling is to issue the payslip with the deduction showing, and then for him to take it from the employee next month, otherwise it's going to mess up on Moneysoft isn't it?
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John
Any advice given is for general guidance and professional advice should be sought applicable to your circumstances.
Hi John
Sorry I didnt mean to be ignoring this post, whilst answering ridiculous waste of time 'lets all go and sit in a bunch of daisies and de-stress'.
Anyway - back in the real world...
I would suggest you deduct form this month's pay/include on payslip and issue this with something in writing to the employee to say that she was overpaid by £xx amount in cash terms so that will be deducted from next month. I work on the basis that she might not be over that pay limit next month for some reason (sickness/doing a runner!) and at least your RTI stuff is correct. Get your client to send the funds to whoever has issued the DEA if they need paying monthly which I suspect. Plus do as Shaun suggested for de-stressing - shove the employers head under the water for a long time whilst reminding him he must not pay before RTI is done! lol
HTH
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Joanne
Winner of Bookkeeper of the Year 2015, 2016 & 2017
Thoughts are my own/not to be regarded as official advice,which should be sought from a suitably qualified Accountant.
You should check out answers with reference to the legal position
Yep, you've echo'd my thoughts so I'm happy to go with that.
