Apologies up front as I'm just going to wing it here in the hopes that some of you may be able to help or offer some insight.. I work for an organisation that have no HR department and payroll is done by the manager. To cut a long story short I have just started my maternity leave. I am paid monthly and work 20 hours a week on a salary of 34k pro-rata based on a 35 HR working week. Our pay date is the 20th of every month. My last day of work was yesterday which coincided with payday but I wasn't paid a full months salary. (I am not getting maternity pay either). I queried this and the response I got was that as I am paid monthly I was paid 20/30. Would this be correct? I was last paid on 20th December so to my mind I have completed a full months work. Could any of you point out what I am missing before I go back to them.
Does it say paydate as 31st pr 30th of each month? But they just pay on 20th of each month but it is calculated up to end of the month? I used to get paid (long time ago now when i was employed), the money went into the bank on 25th of each month but the payslip was up to the end of the month.
Firstly most people on here are book keeping professionals not employment law specialists and advice is meant to be professional to professional so assuming a certain level of knowledge not to the general public which would require a certain level of knowledge of that persons exact situation that you would obtain if they were a client and you would have letters of engagement etc.
However in simple terms you need to check what your contract says. I process payroll for the company I am employed by. The monthly paid workers are paid on 22nd of each month and that is the process date printed on the payslip. However that covers hours worked from 1st - 30th/31st of each month so if you worked for my company yes, your January salary would have been pro rata.
I am confused as to why you are not receiving Statutory Maternity Pay? Were you already pregnant when you began working for the company?
